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Postby lukemr999999 » November 29th, 2016, 4:30 pm

Couple of very annoying questions that i had while re-reading Harry Potter and the Deathly Hallows:

First off the battle between Gridewald and Dumbledore is very glaring for me. So from what i can collect Grindewald was raising an army in 1945 in order to gain power and have more room to look for the Deathly Hallows all while being the proper master and owner of the Elder Wand. So my 2 questions on this topic are as follows. How did Dumbledore defeat Grindewald if he was in possession of The Wand? I have one theory about this however and that is that Gridewald as a former friend of Dumbledore's Thought it would be unfair to duel him with the Elder wand and as a true testament to The Wand's loyalty decided to fight with his own wand. My second question regarding this fight however is if Dumbledore defeated Grindewald, but didn't kill him wouldn't Voldemort put two and two together and see that only he who defeats the owner is the master of the wand and in turn kill Draco? Another question i have not regarding the fight was when Harry was infiltrating the Ministry of Magic and slipped under the invisibility cloak to go into Umbridge's study (Who had the eye of Mad-Eye Moody on her door. This can see through invisibility cloaks as we learn from Barty Crouch Jr in the Goblet of Fire. A speedy response would be nice thanks for reading.[spoiler]

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